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On Thu, Jun 10, 2010 at 4:55 PM, Jesse Bangs <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
> Does anybody know of a language whose orthography consistently
> distinguishes between two non-contrastive allophones? A hypothetical
> example would be a world in which English orthography was designed by
> colonizers from India, who assigned different Devanagari symbols to
> aspirated and unaspirated voiceless consonants in English, despite the
> fact that those sounds don't contrast and have a completely
> complimentary distribution.

Etruscan wrote /k/ as C, K, or Q depending on the following vowel,
presumably indcating different allophones. Similar things happen in
early Latin and Greek.

-- 
Andreas Johansson

Why can't you be a non-conformist just like everybody else?