On Thu, Jun 10, 2010 at 4:55 PM, Jesse Bangs <[log in to unmask]> wrote: > Does anybody know of a language whose orthography consistently > distinguishes between two non-contrastive allophones? A hypothetical > example would be a world in which English orthography was designed by > colonizers from India, who assigned different Devanagari symbols to > aspirated and unaspirated voiceless consonants in English, despite the > fact that those sounds don't contrast and have a completely > complimentary distribution. Etruscan wrote /k/ as C, K, or Q depending on the following vowel, presumably indcating different allophones. Similar things happen in early Latin and Greek. -- Andreas Johansson Why can't you be a non-conformist just like everybody else?