On Thu, Jun 10, 2010 at 7:09 PM, Alex Fink <[log in to unmask]> wrote: > On Thu, 10 Jun 2010 07:55:24 -0700, Jesse Bangs <[log in to unmask]> wrote: > >>Does anybody know of a language whose orthography consistently >>distinguishes between two non-contrastive allophones? A hypothetical >>example would be a world in which English orthography was designed by >>colonizers from India, who assigned different Devanagari symbols to >>aspirated and unaspirated voiceless consonants in English, despite the >>fact that those sounds don't contrast and have a completely >>complimentary distribution. > > Well, Devanagari (for Sanskrit) itself has some examples, no? AFAIK the > nasals [J] and [N] didn't have phonemic standing, and visarga and anusvara > don't either. > > The Mongolian script writes the front-vocalic [k g] and back-vocalic [q G] > allophones of /k g/ differently -- in fact it collapses the former two, so > the characters are [k g], [q], [G]! Is that supposed to be a small cap G (IPA voiced uvular stop)? Comes across here as a regular capital (SAMPA voiced velar fricative). -- Andreas Johansson Why can't you be a non-conformist just like everybody else?