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On Thu, Jun 10, 2010 at 7:09 PM, Alex Fink <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
> On Thu, 10 Jun 2010 07:55:24 -0700, Jesse Bangs <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
>
>>Does anybody know of a language whose orthography consistently
>>distinguishes between two non-contrastive allophones? A hypothetical
>>example would be a world in which English orthography was designed by
>>colonizers from India, who assigned different Devanagari symbols to
>>aspirated and unaspirated voiceless consonants in English, despite the
>>fact that those sounds don't contrast and have a completely
>>complimentary distribution.
>
> Well, Devanagari (for Sanskrit) itself has some examples, no?  AFAIK the
> nasals [J] and [N] didn't have phonemic standing, and visarga and anusvara
> don't either.
>
> The Mongolian script writes the front-vocalic [k g] and back-vocalic [q G]
> allophones of /k g/ differently -- in fact it collapses the former two, so
> the characters are [k g], [q], [G]!

Is that supposed to be a small cap G (IPA voiced uvular stop)? Comes
across here as a regular capital (SAMPA voiced velar fricative).


-- 
Andreas Johansson

Why can't you be a non-conformist just like everybody else?