> I would rather say it's a new dialect of Spanish, but not really an auxlang.
> Otherwise, we should say that Brazilian Portuguese is itself an auxlang since it
> says "brecar" (to brake) while European Portuguese has "travar".

I was intrigued by the adding of -ear (not just -ar) to English verbs to make Spanglish verbs.  Does that happen in Spanish also, or only in Spanglish?

> Furthermore, other considerations keep me from considering Spanglish as an
> auxlang:
> - sources limited to Spanish and US English
Well, they're pretty big sources, both world languages (currently, not just historically), we can also draw from BrEng.   If you think about, it's only traditional that an IAL has to have five or six source langs -- there's no divine law of auxlangs that says you can't have two source langs, or even one.

> - the irregularities of Spanish seem to be maintained: in the sample, we still
> have "tuve" (from "tener").

Irregularities would be taken care of by a natural process of "creolization" once the form of language starts to settle down.  This is not an obstacle to my current thinking, as I was intentionally starting from a situation of language-mixing -- in which of course irregularities of the mixing languages will remain.

> Code-switching in border areas is common. For example, the French spoken in
> Northern Lorraine has many Germanisms.
True, but I don't see a franco-german IAL taking off in today's world (maybe a few hundred years ago).