Sellamat James !

>> says "brecar" (to brake) while European Portuguese has "travar".
>I was intrigued by the adding of -ear (not just -ar) to English verbs to make 
Spanglish verbs.  Does that happen in Spanish also, or only in Spanglish?

I remember Spanish "pasear" from "paseo" = "walk"

>Well, they're pretty big sources, both world languages (currently, not just 
historically), we can also draw from BrEng.   If you think about, it's only 
traditional that an IAL has to have five or six source langs -- there's no divine 
law of auxlangs that says you can't have two source langs, or even one.

Of course, there's not. However, if you look at languages worldwide, some of 
them have had a huge influence on the vocabulary of other ones: I think at 
Arabic, Spanish, French, Portuguese, English, Russian, Parsi, Chinese, and at 
Latin, Old Greek and Sanskrit among dead languages.
About the difficulty of mixing languages together, you can see Robert Winter's 
last post:

>> - the irregularities of Spanish seem to be maintained: in the sample, we still
>> have "tuve" (from "tener").
>Irregularities would be taken care of by a natural process of "creolization" 
once the form of language starts to settle down.  This is not an obstacle to 
my current thinking, as I was intentionally starting from a situation of 
language-mixing -- in which of course irregularities of the mixing languages will 
This reassures me for Sambahsa's grammar....

>> Code-switching in border areas is common. For example, the French spoken 
>> Northern Lorraine has many Germanisms.
>True, but I don't see a franco-german IAL taking off in today's world (maybe 
a few hundred years ago).
OK. As a joke, I contended once that Luxembourgish, a germanic dialect with 
French loawords, should be Europe's auxlang... Moreover, it has complicated 
diphtongs like English....