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On Fri, Nov 26, 2010 at 8:48 AM, R A Brown <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
>
[snip]
>
> On the other hand, the term 'infinitive' does have a broadly recognized
> 'cross-language' meaning. That is why I would find it strange that, if a
> language clearly had a verbal noun that was used in more or less the same
> situations as the infinitive in English and many other languages, the verbal
> noun was called the 'gerund' and not the 'infinitive'.

I ended up with a situation like that once - I first made a language
with two verbal nouns, that I called infinitive and gerund, and then I
made a sibling language, where the form cognate with the "infinitive"
had been lost.

-- 
Andreas Johansson

Why can't you be a non-conformist just like everybody else?