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Mm, I'm not sure.  Expletive infixation in English only occurs between
metrical feet.  I'm not sure morpheme boundaries, other than insofar as they
impact metrical feet, come into it.


On Wed, Feb 2, 2011 at 12:11 AM, Eric Christopherson <[log in to unmask]>wrote:

> On Feb 1, 2011, at 2:38 PM, Logan Kearsley wrote:
>
> > On Tue, Feb 1, 2011 at 1:27 PM, Patrick Dunn <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
> >> Now that I'm getting up to speed with noun incorporation, I'm wondering
> >> about the origins of infixes.  I'm having a hard time imagining a
> scenario
> >> that would evolve such a thing.
> >
> > Metathesis. Ablaut. Assimilation followed by loss of the original
> > affixes. Splitting up long words with modifiers (like
> > "abso-freaking-lutely").
>
> That last one is sort of begging the question, I think (and ablaut almost
> is, IMO, although ablaut is not the same as infixation).
>
> I'm not sure how expletive infixation came about in English, but I've
> always pictured it as coming from a situation where the morphemes in a
> polymorphemic word come to be seen as (as least somewhat) independent words.
> I can picture this happening in "in/credible" and "un/believable", although
> I don't know how to explain how the morphemes come to be seen as words.
> (Possibly by analogy to phrases involving "not" + an adjective, e.g. "not
> freaking possible"?)
>



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I have stretched ropes from steeple to steeple; garlands from window to
window; golden chains from star to star, and I dance.  --Arthur Rimbaud