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Grab an English dictionary and look up the word *set*. That will give you
some idea of how far homophony can go for a single word.  Sure, a good many
of the 64 definitions listed in the OED are just minor variations on a
theme, but there are quite a number of radically different concepts covered
by that one monosyllable.

As for having that kind of homophony at work in EVERY word in a language...
I think you'd end up with mere gibberish.

Adam

On Mon, Mar 7, 2011 at 3:15 PM, Miles Forster <[log in to unmask]> wrote:

> Hi
>
> I was wondering how much homophony there can be in a non-tonal language
> without causing to much lexical ambiguity.
>
> Would it be unthinkable for a language to have, say, three meanings per
> "word"?
>
> What if only some words have homophones (but a larger number), while others
> don't. Would that help anything?
>