On Fri, 17 Feb 2012 23:24:41 -0500, J. M. DeSantis <[log in to unmask]> wrote:

>If a language derives from another language, but the original language
>has no word for something, will the derivative language in the family
>simply coin a new word or root to work with? Or should all words come
>from some source?

I was just reminded that there's another case in which a lot of coinage _ex
nihilo_ has historically happened: this is the case when it is decided that
a language with little to no literary tradition should be elevated to a
standard language.  Someone will take on the task of compiling and filling
up a dictionary, and where no good other mode of formation presents, making
up words with no source can prevail.  There was a lot of this in Estonian
(e.g. see

An arguably related process happened in Basque: there there were a number of
cases where the modernisers were trying to coin new words according to
Basque morphology but botched it, leaving words that have recognisable roots
but otherwise unexampled derivational processes.

Or in Turkish: there there are a bunch of words which are kinda made of
native elements twisted out of shape to resemble words in European
languages, so that components of them don't really have a source in the
usual sense.  

Or ...