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I've never seen "who's" except as a contraction of "who is" or "who 
has".  The possessive is always "whose", so I think that's right.

I do, however, think that should be "one of whose children has hurt the 
other...", not "one of whose child", unless the two pairs of parents 
only have one single child between them.  Which in turn would make the 
"has hurt the other" make no sense.


On 03/22/2012 08:53 AM, MorphemeAddict wrote:
> I just came across this odd sentence from the blurb of a new book
> acquisition at the library:
>
> Two pairs of parents, one of whose child has hurt the other, ...
>
> Here, it looks like the possessive "whose" should actually be "who's",
> since the possessive is of the whole phrase "one of who". It just seems
> strange to me.
>
> stevo