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On 2012-03-23 23:38, Eric Christopherson wrote:
> How likely is it that the phonemes in question have*only*  voiceless stop allophones?

That's a good question. One immediately thinks
"intervocalic lenition"! Then I remembered that the
historical voiced fricative allophones of Finnish /p t
k/ were actually not triggered by intervocalic
position, but by being the onset of a closed syllable.
Synchronically the picture is jumbled: [ɣ] was mostly
lost, [β] merged with /ʋ/ and [ð] merged with /ɾ l/zero
or (in the Swedish- influenced standard pronunciation)
became /d/, a new phoneme because the conditioning
environment was sometimes lost since final /k/ > [ʔ] > 0.

But more relevant: what about where there is an aspiration
distinction.  IIUC Mandarin stops don't have voiced allophones,
do they?

/bpj