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On 06/05/2012 14:38, Daniel Prohaska wrote:
> I can imagine the ablative CASA (with a long final a)
> could possibly have taken on the meaning "at (someone's)
> place". Dan

Not in Classical Latin, it couldn't.

The _locative_ did have such a meaning g, but that case was
found only with place names and the words _domi_ "at home"
and _ruri_ "in the country(side)".   There is no record of
its being used with _casa_.

As for the ablative, it would need a preposition for the
meaning you suggest, e.g. in mea casa.

Nor, of course, could this be so in Vulgar Latin as neither
the locative or the ablative survived there.

The Latin preposition _apud_ BTW did survive into old French
as _o_, _od_ or _ot_ according to dialect and, apparently,
survived in some regional patois until the 15th century; but
AIUI it meant "with" rather than "at the house of."

-- 
Ray
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