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________________________________
 David Peterson wrote:
This'd do it:

Time X
*sata
*N+sata > *nsata

Time X+1 (Fortition)
*sata > *sata
*nsata > *ntata

Time X+2 (Post-Nasal Voicing)
*sata > *sata
*ntata > *ndata

Time X+3 (Nasal+Stop Cluster Simplification)
*sata > sata
*ndata > data

No idea if this would apply to your situation.
=================================================
No idea here either; actually I've considered this, because in the area, *ns ( I suppose via **nd?) does indeed > /d/ in Leti (that's in the written forms; in Leti and another relative,it's been described as a retroflex[ʈ])
and its relatives, both initially and medially. It didn't happen in final position because Austronesian langs. don't permit final -NC, so it's hard to conceive of, because in these 2 langs. you get /d/ finally as well. If you're interested, take a look at van Engelenhoven's article on p. 297 of  http://www.scribd.com/doc/49379918/michael-chlenov-jubileum-volume (there's both a Russian and English Table of Contents; there's a little box in the upper right where you can fill in 297). West Damar is the lang. in question, and everyone seems to think it's quite odd, perhaps even an isolate in the area; North Babar is the other lang. with s > d, not necessarily in the same words.
I need to read and re-read van E's paper and take a hard look at the data; I don't think he has an explanation for the change either.

(Tooting own horn, I have a short paper in the same vol. on p. 284).

On Jun 18, 2012, at 3:19 PM, Patrick Dunn wrote:

> On Mon, Jun 18, 2012 at 5:08 PM, Roger Mills <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
> 
>> I am curious-- does anyone know of a case of s (or *s) > d ? It happens in
>> two of the languages of eastern Indonesia that I'm working on, and I find
>> it very strange.  There is also a change *s > t, which is sort-of
>> explicable as part of the k > ?, t > k, (... s > t (?)) series. I wonder if
>> somehow this  /t/ became voiced somewhere along the way (though there
>> doesn't seem to be any other voicing changes in the languages.).
>> 
>> 
> That does seem a little odd to me.  At least they share a place of
> articulation, but the sudden appearance of voicing would make me think
> something voiced them.  Do you have any examples?  You're probably a heck
> of a lot better at solving phonology problems than I am, but it'd be fun to
> look at.