unless i'm mistaken, in Middle Welsh the digraph <uu> was used for /u:/ (or
whatever the sound was back then -- my Welsh kind of sucks), which might
naturally continue on to <w>. it makes a lot of sense, i think.

the *weirder* question is why, in Germanic (and, i'm sure, elsewhere), the
following arrangement seemed sensible:
<uu> = /w/
<u> = /u/
my 'instincts' would flip them, with the longer sound corresponding to the
longer symbol. unless the consonantality of /w/ suggested itself as more
prominent for the orthography. but, such is life. however, reading Old High
German texts with words like <uuurdun> (modern *wurden*) is quite the


On Fri, Sep 7, 2012 at 6:42 PM, Charlie Brickner <[log in to unmask]
> wrote:

> I'm always trying to improve the orthography of Senjecas.  I'd like to
> know why <w> was chosen to represent /u/ in Welsh, and when?
> Charlie