Print

Print


Matt,

Having studied Italian (albeit a long time ago), I'm seeing this is 
almost painfully obvious. LOL.

Thank you. This will help immensely. Though, while I'm at it (all of 
you) are there any great sources for sound change listings out there on 
the web? I've found many (they're not hard to find), but I wondered if 
there might be one or two incomparable sources which have a plethora of 
listings (even within certain families) or perhaps some common changes 
the world over (if that even occurs)?

Thanks again all, and I'll be sure to post when the book (being a comic, 
if many of you are okay with that sort of thing) is available.

Sincerely,
J. M. DeSantis
Writer - Illustrator

Official Website: jmdesantis.com <http://www.jmdesantis.com>
On 11/14/2012 5:53 PM, Matthew Boutilier wrote:
> Aha! yeah, same like *hominem* > Italian *uomo* /'womo/ 'man.'
>
> I'm pretty sure French only gets initial /w/ (spelled <ou>) in loanwords
> (from English/Germanic and Arabic and what not). e.g. *ouest* 'west.'
> Ancient Greek sort of did the same thing; after it lost /w/ it often
> spelled loanwords with /w-/ as <οὐ->.
>
> Once upon a time, like Adam said, /w/ was borrowed (since it wasn't in the
> native phonology) as /gw/ into Romance (e.g. Guillaume, guerre, gant
> (probably orig. /gwant/ (?) ultimately from Germanic *wantu-). But now that
> the Romance phonologies have become a bit more comfortable with /w/, this
> doesn't happen anymore (that I know of).
>
> matt
>
>
> On Wed, Nov 14, 2012 at 4:40 PM, Adam Walker <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
>
>> In Spanish, I believe /w/ sounds normally come either from the "breaking"
>> of an original /o/ into /ue/ or from qu- and gu- followed by a non-front
>> vowel.  Borrowed words with initail /w/ are normally "hardened" to /gw/.
>>
>> Is this the sort of thing you're looking for?
>>
>> Adam
>>
>> On Wed, Nov 14, 2012 at 4:29 PM, J. M. DeSantis <[log in to unmask]>
>> wrote:
>>
>>>   On 11/14/2012 5:01 PM, Matthew Boutilier wrote:
>>>
>>>> I don't quite understand your question. Latin /w/ (which, as you say,
>> was
>>>> written <V>) became /v/ in the daughter languages, and that itself is
>> the
>>>> sound change.
>>>>
>>>> Latin <V> was also used for /u(:)/, but that was a different phoneme and
>>>> of
>>>> course did not participate in the abovementioned sound change.
>>>>
>>>> matt
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> Basically, I'm looking for how /v/ and /w/ came to exist in Romance
>>> languages descending from Latin. If *V* was pronounced /w/ in Latin, but
>>> became /v/ in daughter languages, where did the /w/ come from in those
>>> daughter languages? Imported words? Or was there another rule where /w/
>> was
>>> formed from other letters or from *V* in certain positions?
>>>
>>> Thanks everyone so far.
>>>
>>>
>>> Sincerely,
>>> J. M. DeSantis
>>> Writer - Illustrator
>>>
>>> Official Website: jmdesantis.com <http://www.jmdesantis.com>
>>>
>
>