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-----Original Message-----
From: Constructed Languages List [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of David McCann

There is, of course, another factor which we've ignored. Jesus wouldn't have spoken Greek on either occasion, but Aramaic. John is translating into Greek because (1) he's addressing an international audience and
(2) even if he were only addressing a local one, Aramaic was currently "out of fashion" as a written language, except in cult circles. How did you address a lady in Aramaic? (Don't ask me!)
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This factor is only relevant if we know that Jesus really said this.  Are these the "ipsissima verba" of Jesus?  Scripture scholars still go round and round about which of the words attributed to Jesus by the evangelists were really spoken by him.   These words may be John's or the community's understanding of something Jesus said or did.  It is important to remember that the gospels are not stenographer's notes.  Still less are they biographies.  The evangelists use the biography style to state their personal faith in Jesus.  I think to say more may impinge upon the NCNC policy.

Charlie