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Hi,

Suppose I have a language in which there is an article (which is indifferent to definiteness), which normally appears before a noun:

oz     ihta
ART  rage      "rage"

However, this language also has possessive suffixes, and alienable and inalienable nouns. Possessive suffixes attach directly to nouns, which in this case don't take an article:

patko-ni
arm    1SP    "my arm"

However, inalienable nouns MUST take an article, and the possessive suffixes attach not to the noun, but to the article. 

My question is, could there be any motivation for mandating that in this situation, the article must appear after the noun, e.g.:

ihta    m-oz-e-ni
rage.       ART 1SP "my rage"

(here m- and -e- are epenthetic).

TIA!

Jeff

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