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I thought the relevant distinction is the absolutive vs. oblique marking on
"cake". In effect, the oblique has a partitive meaning, and the antipassive
merely allows the patient to appear as an oblique.

2014年5月14日水曜日、Jeffrey Brown<[log in to unmask]>さんは書きました:

> It seems that this illustrates that the partitive (marked on nouns) and the
> incompletive (marked on verbs) are two different ways to grammaticalize the
> same phenomenon.  As in:
>   He ate part-of-the-cake.
>   He partly-ate the cake.
>
>
>
> On Tue, May 13, 2014 at 8:43 AM, David McCann <[log in to unmask]<javascript:;>
> >wrote:
>
> > On Mon, 12 May 2014 18:15:29 -0400
> > Henry Ogledd <[log in to unmask]<javascript:;>>
> wrote:
> >
> > > I've always found the concept of a partitive case a bit confusing.
> > > Partitivity strikes me as a more naturally a quality of the action,
> > > i.e. it should relate to the verb. Thus, I'm inclined to put a
> > > partitive marker on the verbs of my language, rather than have a
> > > partitive case. Is this typologically odd? Are there natlangs that do
> > > this to verbs?
> >
> > It happens in some ergative languages, particularly Caucasian ones.
> > I don't have any real examples to hand, but you get something like:
> > he.ERG eat.PST cake.ABS = he ate the cake
> > he.ABS eat.AP.PST cake.OBL = he ate some cake
> >
>