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On Sun, 18 May 2014 17:00:29 +1000
Siva Kalyan <[log in to unmask]> wrote:

> This may seem less mysterious if we understand the “partitive” in these languages as actually being a “partitive accusative” (or “partitive core”?), and there being no partitive for any of the other cases.  


That makes sense, especially in light of the fact that the Finnish partitive is used to mark atelic direct objects (in contrast to the accusative, which marks telic direct objects). 

-Kelvin