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Arabic just uses the same verbal direct-object suffixes on prepositions IIRC.

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> On Jun 18, 2014, at 23:25, Kev-Bill Walker <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
> 
> Hi all,
> 
> Does anyone have insight into how languages that conjugate prepositions and
> use case to specify the meanings of prepositions combine the two, if they
> ever even coincide?  Did/do Celtic languages do both at once?  Would this
> result in different conjugated forms for the same person/number?
> 
> Thanks,
> Kevin William Walker
> 
> 
> -- 
> Kevin William Walker