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On Sat, 30 Aug 2014 17:37:20 +0100, R A Brown <[log in to unmask]> wrote:

>On 30/08/2014 14:11, R A Brown wrote:
>[snip]
>> I obviously didn't explain it very well.
>
>I hope I've done it better now; see section 4.2.3 on:
>http://www.carolandray.plus.com/BART/consonants.html

Yes.  My mail may have suggested more confusion than I was actually labouring under.  I'm aware that French did [t, d] > [D] > [0], whereas e.g. Portuguese didn't move original [t] past [d] (perhaps except recently); and the reason I thought you had meant "voiceless stops become voiced fricatives" was that _Latin_ /t/ becomes post-second-lenition [D].  What wasn't clear was whether the deletion of [D G] < Latin /t k/ was uniform in the area of the second lenition, and you've now cleared that up.  

Is it compatible with the timing of these shifts that primary [D G] < *d g be treated differently than secondary [D G] < *t k ?

Alex