On 25/01/2016 12:30, Leonardo Castro wrote:
> 2016-01-23 17:29 GMT-02:00 Mark J. Reed
> <[log in to unmask]>:
>> In the example given, the first sentence is a "Do you
>> want X?" question - the X happens to be a choice,
> Yes, it's
> Do you want *{chocolate or strawberry}*?
> where X = "chocolate or strawberry"

... and where we're asking if the guy still wants it if that
is the choice.  Therefore, in Latin we _must_ have "vis"
(you want) as first word, and add the enclitic -ne to make
the thing a question.

Presumably we're not interested whether it's chocolate or
strawberry; either will do if the guy answers "yes", so the
word for 'or" will be _vel_ (or the enclitic -ve).

visne socolatam vel fragariam?
visne socolatam fragariamve?

> Do yo want *{chocolate}* or *{strawberry}*?
> where X = "chocolate" and Y = "strawberry".

... where we know the guy wants something - we just need to
know the choice.  So the "choolate or strawberry" _must_
come first (because that's what we're asking about) and the
word for "or" *must* be "an" (because we're asking a
disjunctive question).  We may still use -ne as the
interrogative marker, but introducing the disjunction with
"utrum" is perhaps more common, thus:

utrum socolatam an fragariam vis?
socolatamne an fragariam vis?

So, in short:
In Latin the two different question will mean:
(a) a difference in word order;
(b) a different word for "or".

Many languages would, I'm sure, require a difference in word
order for the two question (Welsh certainly does).  The
requirement for different words for "or" may not be so
common, but I cannot imagine Latin is unique in doing so.

"Ein Kopf, der auf seine eigenen Kosten denkt,
wird immer Eingriffe in die Sprache thun."
[J.G. Hamann, 1760]
"A mind that thinks at its own expense
will always interfere with language".