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On 04/09/2017 17:01, Aidan Aannestad wrote:
> Latin seems to have done this with non-pronouns to a degree. Despite
> the fact that nominative is the dictionary form, if you wanted to
> just exclaim a noun without a surrounding structure, you'd use the 
> accusative,

Really?

So what are the nominatives exclamations "fabulae!" (stories!) and
"nugas!" (trifles!) doing, or Platus' "em tibi anus lepida!" (look you,
an elegant old woman!) or Pilate's "ecce homo!" (behold, the man!).

"tis true we do find _also_ eccusatives of exclamation such as "nugas!",
"hercle rem gestam bene" (a good deed, by Hercues!") , "artificem
probum!" (an excellent artist!) - but these depend upon an unexpressed
verb just like Esperanto's "Bonan tagon!"

The generalization above doesn't hold water.

> and the vast majority of Romance noun forms come from Latin 
> accusatives rather than nominatives.

True, tho this was a development in Vulgar Latin and is rather more
complicated than this and has much to do with phonetic attriction as
anything else.  This is clearly not the case with English "I" and "me".

I was going to comment on the French examples as the Romancelangs use of
disjunctive and conjunctive personal pronouns is really something quite
different from English, but I'm pressed for time.  However, Nathan does,
I think, make a valid comment "What makes English confusing here is that
its emphatic pronouns look exactly like its object pronouns."

Ray