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Hi all,

While browsing through the Internet, looking at minor Romance
langs/dialects, I chanced on Romagnol and found it has [θ] and [ð],
written _z_ and _ż_ respectivally.  They apparently originated
fromearlier affricates [ts] and [dz] (in Castillian Spanish [θ] also
originated from earlier [ts]).

Those affricates don't exist in Britainese, but [ð] does as a result of
original lenition of Vulgar Latin [d] in certain positions (in
Britainese /ð/ and /d/ are distinct phonemes).

At present, as well as tydying up the Consonants and Vowels pages, I am
also revising the Orthography page, which badly needs rewriting.  I have
been wondering about _z_.  It will not have been in the earliest
Britainese but will be introdiced quite early in more learned words such
as _baptizar_, _evangelizar_ etc.  The learned pronunciation would
almost certainly be [dz] as it was in Old French.  I had been sort of
assuming it would pass to plain [z] as it dis in French.  But in one or
two wild moments I had considered [dz] -> [ð], so that Britainese /ð/ is
written _z_, rather than _dh_ (or _đ_ ).

I had dismissed this as a wild idea, but having met it this evening in
an actual Romancelang, I am wondering if it isn't so whacky after all?

Ray