On Sun, 6 May 2018 11:23:40 +0800 Stewart Fraser <[log in to unmask]> wrote: > What they wrote was OK. However they never mentioned why CF was so > strongly aligned with past tense in many languages of the world. > > Has anybody got any idea what percentage of languages have CF aligned > with past tense ? I can't say the percentage, but when you consider it's common in Europe, North America, and Africa, it must be sizable. None of the books I've got venture an explanation, though. I suspect that it's a case of "because it's there." Consider how some languages with a productive morphology for marking the perfective / imperfective distinction have recycled the present-perfective form as a future (Georgian, Hungarian). You have a form or construction that's surplus to requirements, so you employ it where you need something. Presumably there must be a rationale, but I can't see it. In the case of the future, at least the present would have been used as a future before a future evolved. Not everything in language makes sense; e.g. in Palmer's Mood and Modality, he remarks that conditionals in Amharic "defy explation"!