Hallo conlangers!

On 14/05/19 23:28, And Rosta wrote:

> I think I would say tense and aspect are entirely orthogonal, in that each
> tense is in principle compatible with each aspect; whereas, tense and
> modality and illocution and modality are not entirely orthogonal: certain
> illocutions necessarily impose certain modalities on their propositional
> argument; and deictic future is at least as much a modality as it is a
> tense. Nevertheless, I was only quibbling, and you are of course right that
> mood comprehends not only modality but also illocution (and evidentiality).

I don't think tense and aspect are entirely orthogonal. The present
tense is by definition referring to *ongoing* events, i. e. it is
imperfective. If a language has a "perfective present", it is usually
meaning something else, such as in Slavic, where what looks like a
"perfective present" actually is a future tense. (Or, the language is a
conlang done by somebody who hasn't thought enough about this matter.)
There are plenty of languages that distinguish aspect only in the past
tense (e. g., Proto-Indo-European) and plenty of languages that
distinguish tense only in the imperfective aspect (e. g., Georgian).

... brought to you by the Weeping Elf