Print

Print


In message  <[log in to unmask]> [log in to unmask] writes:
> Cheradenine Zakalwe wrote:
> > Is "me habe lecto" correct LsF? I thought that the only way to indicate
> > tense and aspect in LsF verbs is to use an appropriate adverbial phrase.
>
> Here e what j found i l book Key a Interlingua, (Latin Without Inflections) o
> page 33-34.
>
> "Sometimes l idea d l past e indicated i some word d l sentence & i such case
> there e n need a inflect l verb.
> Heri me scribe p e used f 'I wrote yesterday.'
> When t e necessary a indicate l past, c p e done by u adverb, z jam or tum,
> particularly used f c purpose, or by i praeterito or by 'e' preceding l
> verb: me,
> te, illo, illa, id, nos, vos, illos, illas, jam ama or tum ama or e ama."
 
I don't follow you; is that a yes or a no? You seem to be saying that
forms of _amare_ can be:
 
   jam ama
   tum ama
   e ama
 
Which I assume are present, past and future (in that order). But that
doesn't say anything about use of perfect tenses with _habe_ and the
past participle. It seems to me that a language is most certainly not
"without inflexions" if one must inflect _legere_ to get _lecto_.
 
--
Cheradenine Zakalwe
Eurolanga Publicizationa Organization