Print

Print


Tom Wier wrote:

> ... We have just gone through another run of the
> question of whether or not it is possible for natlangs
> to be more logical or better than one another.  What makes them different
> from conlangs?  I mean,  they are both products of the human mind, and
> of human societal interactions, and both sets of languages are in some sense
> also consious creations of people, insofar as natlangs are the creations of
> communities, while conlangs are the creations, for the most part, of
> individuals.  What makes conlangs any different _qualitatively_? Are they
> somehow not subject to the same laws  that have governed language since
> the dawn of time?  I think this concept is _highly_ suspect.

I agree with you.  Even computer programming languages seem, to me, to be "subject to the
same laws that have governed language since the dawn of time."  I've done a lot of thinking
about what those "laws" might be, and I suppose some other people in this group have also
done so.  Would you (or any of you) like to begin a new thread, on that topic?

-- Tommie